(b)lines Ask the Experts – Loan Defaults and Non-Military Leaves of Absence

“I read with great interest your Ask the Experts column discussing the effect of a military leave on a ‘cure period’ where a loan repayment was not made prior to the military leave, but a default has not yet taken place, because the cure period has not yet expired.

“Essentially, the cure period in that scenario was extended by the length of the military leave (provided the plan contained such a military leave provision) so that no loan payments were due even though the loan was not current when the leave commenced. Would the same extension apply for a non-military leave, or would a clock on the cure period keep ticking during a non-military leave of absence until a loan repayment was made?”

 

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Stacey Bradford, Kimberly Boberg, David Levine and David Powell, with Groom Law Group, and Michael A. Webb, vice president, Retirement Plan Services, Cammack Retirement Group, answer:

This is an excellent question, as it highlights a key difference in loan repayments between military and non-military leaves of absence, as described in Treasury Regulation Section 1.72(p)-1. As we indicated in our prior column, Q&A 9(b), which addresses repayments during military leaves of absence, provides that the suspension period will not count against the participant for purposes of determining whether the participant failed to make a payment, or to correct a missed payment, on time. Thus, a loan that was NOT deemed distributed while an employee was in active employment with the employer (including on an approved non-military leave of absence) CANNOT be deemed distributed when the employee goes on military leave, since, as the Q&A clearly indicates, there is not an obligation to repay a loan at all during military service.

However, the military leave language of Q&A 9(b) is quite different than the Q&A language addressing non-military leaves of absence, as follows:

“(a) Leave of absence. The level amortization requirement of section 72(p)(2)(C) does not apply for a period, not longer than one year (or such longer period as may apply under section 414(u) and paragraph (b) of this Q&A-9), that a participant is on a bona fide leave of absence, either without pay from the employer or at a rate of pay (after applicable employment tax withholdings) that is less than the amount of the installment payments required under the terms of the loan. However, the loan (including interest that accrues during the leave of absence) must be repaid by the latest permissible term of the loan and the amount of the installments due after the leave ends must not be less than the amount required under the terms of the original loan.”

Unlike the military leave section, this section does NOT state that the suspension of payments under the leave is disregarded for purposes of 72(p) (meaning that there is not an obligation to repay a loan at all during the leave period); it merely states that the level amortization requirement for loan repayments does not apply during the leave. Thus, during such a leave of absence the “cure period” for the prior missed loan repayment still applies, and if the late loan repayment is not made during the cure period, the loan will be deemed distributed in accordance with Q&A-10. As stated in Q&A-10, the cure period cannot continue beyond the last day of the calendar quarter following the calendar quarter in which the required installment payment was due. This cure period is rendered moot in the event of a military leave of absence (if the plan provides for such a leave) but is in full effect in the event of a non-military leave, and the participant must make up the missed loan payment before the expiration of the cure period or default on the loan. 

 

NOTE: This feature is to provide general information only, does not constitute legal advice, and cannot be used or substituted for legal or tax advice.

 

Do YOU have a question for the Experts? If so, we would love to hear from you! Simply forward your question to Rebecca.Moore@strategic-i.com with Subject: Ask the Experts, and the Experts will do their best to answer your question in a future Ask the Experts column.

TRIVIAL PURSUITS: Who Invented Champagne?

The answer to, “Who invented champagne?” turns out to be very complicated.

Many attribute the “discovery” of champagne to Benedictine Monk Dom Pierre Perignon. The legend goes that he served as cellar master at the Abbey of Hautvillers near the town of Epernay, within Champagne, France, responsible for overseeing the abbey’s wine production, aging, and storage. He was tasked with ridding the abbey’s sparkling wine of bubbles, a common problem winemakers of the time experienced due to refermentation—when bottled wine cooled before all of the sugar had been converted into alcohol, fermentation halted, then, when bottles warmed up again in the summer, dormant yeasts became active, producing carbon dioxide and effervescence. When he couldn’t rid the wine of bubbles, he tasted it, and on August 4, 1693, reportedly exclaimed to his fellow monks, “Come quickly! I am drinking the stars!”

 

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However, many in England believe a Gloucester doctor, Christopher Merret, recorded a recipe for a Champagne-style drink some 20 years before Perignon. In 1662, Merret presented the Royal Society with an eight-page paper detailing experiments of English cider makers, who had begun adding sugars to wine to create a bubbly, dry drink—similar to modern-day Champagne. Merret noted how “our wine-coopers of recent times add vast quantities of sugar and molasses to wines to make them drink brisk and sparkling.”

 

Here’s where we come to the difference between sparkling wine and champagne. Sparkling wine can only be called Champagne if it comes from the region of Champagne, France.  The French have maintained their legal right to call their wines champagne for over a century. The Treaty of Madrid, signed in 1891, established this rule, and the Treaty of Versailles reaffirmed it. The European Union helps protect this exclusivity now, although certain American producers can still generically use “champagne” on their labels if they were using the term before early 2006. Further, champagne can only be made using Chardonnay, Pinot Noir, and Pinot Meunier. So, all champagne is sparkling wine, but not all sparkling wine is champagne.

 

Whether it’s true or not that Perignon invented, or first discovered wine, he made a significant contribution to the development of champagne when he discovered the technique that allows vintners to produce a successful white wine from red grapes.

 

Today champagne undergoes two fermentations. After the first traditional fermentation and bottling, yeast and rock sugar is added to the bottle and the champagne, then sealed, is left to age for at least 1.5 years. Once the bottle reaches maturity, a process known as remuage occurs. The bottles are gradually turned until they are almost upside-down, allowing the yeast to settle at the neck of the bottle. After a quick freeze, the cap and frozen residue is removed and the bottle is quickly re-corked to maintain its carbon dioxide. Once the bottles hit the market, they’re ready—thanks to Perignon—to open with a bang.

 

 

Sources include www.historychannel.com/au, The Daily Mail, www.historyrevealed.com, and http://www.legrandcourtage.com.
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